Let f(1) = 1 and f(n) = 2 _ r=1 ^ n-1 f(r). Then _ n=1 ^ m f(n) is equal to

JEE Advanced Mathematics question

Let and . Then is equal to

Answer: (C)

Let . The rule says for . Hence

= + f(n) = + = (n 2).

With this gives .

Equivalently (book's route): $f(n+1)

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Question ID VK-109116