If f_n(x) = e^ f_ n-1 (x) for all n N and f_0(x) = x then d dx f_n(x) is equal to

JEE Advanced Mathematics question

If for all and then is equal to

Answer: (A),(C)

By the chain rule,

= = = ·,

so (a) is true. Repeating the same step for :

= ·s

Create a free account to read the complete working (5 steps), and practise questions like this in a timed test.

Question ID VK-109246